QUOTE(jmkeuning @ Jan 28 2008, 09:56 AM) [snapback]494317[/snapback]
I use esnipe. And it is certainly not rubbish.
Imagine there is only one other bidder, who has bid $10 on a pen. Imagine this buyer will pay up to $20, but has only put in the bid for $10. I can put in my $15 max, but as soon as the other bidder sees it, she will out bid me. However, if I snipe, the initial $10 bid will stand and I'll win for $11 (or whatever the increment).
Now, if my opposition bid by proxy, and put in her $20 max, then my snipe will not work.
But saying that sniping does not work, well, that's rubbish.
I still don't get it.
OK, the scenario. A pen is available. I am WILLING to pay $20. The opponent is WILLING to pay $15. The term "WILLING" means, that's our personal maximum at the outset. We assess the item, look at the dings and scratches, decide.
According to you, JMKeuning, if we both put in our bid-by-proxy in "plain" (non-sniping) fashion, something won't work. To me, I think I'd get the item for $16. (The EBay increment at that level is $1?)
You're describing a situation in which BOTH participants (me and the opponent) are both sniping. So, say he has a sniping program that puts in a $10 bid and I have one that therefore hits $11. His sniper increments up to $15, mine up as far as $20. But it never gets to $20, it stops at $16 when nobody outbids it. Again, I get the item for $16.
Exactly the same result. Mine for $1 more than his maximum, because my maximum is higher than his. Either by snipe or by plain, same result.
I think what you're saying is, that if I am sniping and he isn't, then I can "fool" him into bidding poorly. He bids $10, I get it for $11. But if he isn't sniping, why wouldn't he put in his personal maximum of $15? If he's put in $10, then his personal maximum isn't $15, but rather $10. Whatever it is, in all scenarios I win the item at $1 more than his personal entered maximum.
I don't get it. "Sniping does not work" isn't what I'm saying. That might or might not be rubbish, I don't care. What I notice, and am asking about, is that there seems to be no REASON for me to use it. I GET NO BENEFIT because in all situations I will simply either (A.) win the item at a price lower than or equal to my maximum or (B.) not win the item because the price is higher than my maximum. It doesn't require a sniping program to distinguish between (A.) and (B.) there. What's the benefit of sniping for me?
What I THINK people wrongly believe about sniping, is that it somehow gives them an advantage because their price will "definitely" be lower. It won't. To snipe and yet use a program which has a maximum set limit, is simply to take the reins away from the EBay proxy-bidding software and put EXACTLY THE SAME REINS into the hands of the Sniping program's proxy-bidding software. Aside from some internet clogging that might prevent the sniping from working (which quite frankly seems to me like a detriment not a benefit) THERE WILL BE LITERALLY NO DIFFERENCE IN PRICE.
The math turns out the same, as long as the computer connections don't break. Therefore there is no benefit to sniping, and the potential detriment is that the computer connections are mildly more likely to malfunction.
I can see one benefit to sniping: not letting other people "know" your personal maximum. However, I don't let them know. I offer my bid to the EBay system, which only indicates it IF THE PRICE EXCEEDS IT. In which case, it's beside the point. Again, the math is the same, and the ultimate result (either at or below my price; or not mine) is the same.
If someone can explain the math differently, or point out some misconception that I have, please do. So far all we've got is examples which claim "benefit" where no change has happened. "Well, I won the item at a price I wanted" doesn't prove sniping works, since that's a result identical to non-sniping.